‘is eigenaar van goederen … om ze te hebben verkregen onder grotere oppervlakte’

18:25 Mar 7, 2021 

I think your Van Dale reference confirms my suggestion. I don't remember seeing the word used in this way before.

16:17 Mar 7, 2021 

so, basically, for some reason I don't (yet) understand, "om" ["in order to", "with a view to"] means the same as "na" [after].

i.e.: "om ze te hebben verkregen" = "na ze te hebben verkregen"

====

or, as per Van Dale NL>EN:

om(3) (voorzetsel) =
#7 met betrekking tot reden
for
on account of, because of

???

16:06 Mar 7, 2021 

Thanks phil, yeah, that's sort of what I had too. I think what is puzzling me is the "om ze te hebben verkregen" part. Which, literally translated, would something like "to [i.e., in order to] have acquired them as part of a larger area" (i.e. with the emphasis on the purpose having been to acquire them in this manner (as part of a larger area), rather than merely stating that they in fact acquired them in this manner.

I wonder why the author didn't write something like:

"is eigenaar van goederen sub 1 en 2, [welke zijn] verkregen onder grotere oppervlakte"

I am still not happy I understand the way this phrase ("om het te hebben aangekocht/verkregen") is constantly being used in these Belgian documents. I still feel I am missing something crucial here. Or just misunderstanding how the Dutch is being used. Have a look at the attached screenshot. This just sounds odd to me. How is that "om" being used here. Does it mean "in order to", "with a view to", or rather something like: "having then [acquired] ..."

13:15 Mar 7, 2021 

Thanks phil, yeah, that's sort of what I had too. I think what is puzzling me is the "om ze te hebben verkregen" part. Which, literally translated, would something like "to [i.e., in order to] have acquired them as part of a larger area" (i.e. with the emphasis on the purpose having been to acquire them in this manner (as part of a larger area), rather than merely stating that they in fact acquired them in this manner.

I wonder why the author didn't write something like:

"is eigenaar van goederen sub 1 en 2, [welke zijn] verkregen onder grotere oppervlakte"

I am still not happy I understand the way this phrase ("om het te hebben aangekocht/verkregen") is constantly being used in these Belgian documents. I still feel I am missing something crucial here. Or just misunderstanding how the Dutch is being used. Have a look at the attached screenshot. This just sounds odd to me. How is that "om" being used here. Does it mean "in order to", "with a view to", or rather something like: "having then [acquired] ..."