Apr 29, 2002 14:50
22 yrs ago
5 viewers *
English term

more tasty

Non-PRO English Other
I wonder if I can say "more tasty" instead of "tastier". If so, in what cases?
Any clue? Thanks!

Responses

+5
16 mins
Selected

Yes and no

While I agree that the "-ier" form is grammatically correct, it is also a fact that the form using "more ..." is heard more and more frequently, especially in North America.

I would say that it really depends on your target audience.

Let's not forget that languages are living things; they keep evolving and changing (just think of the split infinitive, which has been, at least, tolerated by Oxford for some time now).
Peer comment(s):

agree Berni Armstrong : To boldly agree where no man has agreed before :-)
8 mins
Make it so, Number One! :-D
agree Maria Nicholas (X)
11 mins
Thanks, Maria
neutral Сергей Лузан : General tendency to functional illitercy in North America.
21 mins
As regards functional illiteracy, it has been found, e.g., that the percentage of people afflicted by this is pretty much the same all over the western world (including Germany, etc.)! No need to single out North America - we're all equally bad or good.
neutral Stanislaw Watson Zajaczkowski (X) : As an American who has lived outside of the US for fifteen years, I second the comment on functional illitercy in North America.
31 mins
See my reply above ;-)
neutral Terence Riley : Yes, North Americans are illiterate, while Europeans are only "concept dead".
55 mins
That's an interesting one ;-)
agree John Kinory (X) : I am tempted to squash this question due to mudslinging. I know plenty of very literate North Americans, and those comments are totally out of place.
2 hrs
It's a shame that some people will never learn (see ProZ forum on mudslinging and denigrating certain nationalities).
agree Sue Goldian : I agree with Werner about yes and no, and I also agree with John about these slurs against North Americans. I find it amusing that Stanislaw and the poster whose comment appears above Stanislaw's both misspelled illiteracy as illitercy.
3 hrs
ROFLOL
agree RHELLER : touché to Terence! I guess nobody's perfect
5 hrs
neutral ivw (X) : I am SOOOOO confused! "North Americans are illiterate" ????? Is this really a forum for professional translators?! Or is this a forum for flame wars?! Who is this "Terence Riley" anyway and why is s/he so special? What a shame... :-(
6 hrs
You are 100% (and we just had a debate on this in the forums). I wish people would stop belittling other nationalities and cultures (especially on this site - a site for translators!!!)
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4 KudoZ points awarded for this answer. Comment: "Thanks! :-) "
2 mins

yes

to emphasize comparison
examples:
more salty
even more windy today than yesterday

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Note added at 2002-04-29 17:00:57 (GMT)
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she asked if she \"could\" say it - I didn\'t say it was better
Peer comment(s):

disagree Maria Knorr : see below
8 mins
disagree Stanislaw Watson Zajaczkowski (X) : 'Tastier' is more grammatically correct. ;))
46 mins
neutral Terence Riley : Yes, "tastier" is better, but there are contexts, such as advertising, where "more tasty" would be acceptable (U.S. Eng.)
1 hr
agree John Kinory (X) : As a native speaker, I'd say they are both grammatically as correct as each other. It's a question of style.
2 hrs
thanks John
agree Sue Goldian
3 hrs
thank you
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+13
9 mins

No

I was taught that if a comparative form of an adjective exists, it is incorrect to form the comparative with 'more'.

So, sillier is right, more silly is wrong.

But it is worth noting that all grammatical rules go out the window where poetic licence is concerned!

'Earth hath not anything to show more fair' ... should really be fairer.

So I'd avoid it unless you're writing poetry.

If you've got one of those 'please write a sentence with 'more tasty' in it, then 'there are more tasty things on sale here than there are next door'.

HTH

Mary
Reference:

Still looking!

Peer comment(s):

agree Maria Knorr
1 min
agree Lydia Molea
3 mins
agree Margaret Lagoyianni : Yes, 'tastier' is grammatically correct.
3 mins
agree Attila Piróth : Practical English Grammar explains this clearly.
4 mins
agree Rolf Klischewski, M.A. : "More tasty recipes inside" works though... (C;
13 mins
agree Сергей Лузан
26 mins
agree ivw (X)
29 mins
agree Alexandra Fakalou
30 mins
agree Stanislaw Watson Zajaczkowski (X)
38 mins
agree Michael Deliso : grammar
47 mins
agree jerrie : more tasty cannot/shouldn't be used as a comparative, but can be used in Rolf's example where there is no comparison. Just a statement of fact.
48 mins
neutral Terence Riley : Yes, "sillier" is better, but is "more silly" more silly?
1 hr
As Werner says, language is fluid ... but I can't think of an instance where it wouldn't sound sillier to say 'more silly' (-:
agree Kim Metzger : Yes on poetic license. One handy rule is that 2-syllable adjectives ending in y take -ier and -iest. Also: When a comparative is not followed immediately by than: the road's getting more and more steep - is possible.
1 hr
agree Ligia Dias Costa : Kim's right!
2 hrs
disagree John Kinory (X) : They are both grammatically correct!
2 hrs
That's certainly not what I learnt! Do you have a source? (-:
agree AhmedAMS
17 hrs
Something went wrong...
10 mins

an educated guess

More tasty is nor really used. I don't think it is gramatically correct either. I did a search in google and more tasty did not come up at all - it's always tastier. tasty, a lot tastier, etc.
I would use tastier.

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Note added at 2002-04-29 15:31:09 (GMT)
--------------------------------------------------

sorry for the typo -> nor = not
Peer comment(s):

agree Сергей Лузан
25 mins
thanks
disagree John Kinory (X) : It is both used (what do you mean, 'not REALLY used' - is it or isn't it?) and correct. This is BE usage, at any rate.
2 hrs
As you might know in US, there different English languages - for example, "I were" is used even though it is not gramatically correct.
neutral Werner George Patels, M.A., C.Tran.(ATIO) (X) : "I were", as in "If I were a rich man" is acceptable and grammatically correct in all varieties of English. Where did you get that idea???
3 hrs
I were there?
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+2
5 days

Side comment on the illiteracy discussion

I received a mail from John accusing me of racism and threatening to quash this question and cite me as the reason, because of the remark above about American illiteracy and Europeans being concept dead.

I just wish to make it clear to all here that my intention was not actually to cast slurs, but rather to satirize the immediately previous comment about American illiteracy. I am American. I was not offended by the previous comment, to be sure, but I did intend to tease it. It was entirely tongue in cheek. If anything, if one wishes to draw out the literal insult, it was aimed at Europeans and not Americans - but let me make it clear that it was a deliberate exaggeration and that I had no intention of insulting anyone at all. I was just mixing two ridiculous hyperboles.

My apologies for going off topic. The combination of the misunderstandings evident above and a personal attack arriving in my own mailbox demanded some defense.
Peer comment(s):

agree Marcus Malabad : I, for one, Terry, being a citizen of the world, caught your tongue-in-cheek and found no offence in your or Sergei Luzan's comment. People should take a cold shower before commenting to cool off. BTW, I agree with Miss Mary the blue elephant above.
16 hrs
Thanks Marcus
agree John Kinory (X) : Terry and I have been discussing this issue, and I hope and believe we have resolved it amicably. I will point out that I never accused him of racism, nor did I have a basis for doing so. I called his remarks racist, which IMO is not the same thing.
2 days 1 hr
Yes, absolutely. My apologies for the inaccuracy. The discussion was on the remark, not about my character. I, too, feel we've resolved it amicably. Thanks for the comment.
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